Hello! Run into trouble...again. This concerns the inverse function of a logarithm If a function maps x on to logax, then the inverse maps logax on to x. So, f(x) = logax, can be presented as y=logax; therefore, x=ay. The book states that the inverse is ax, why is this the inverse? I tried determining the inverse by using a basic inverse: f(x)=3x+1 f-1(x)=(x-1)/3 If x=2 Then, f(x)=3*2+1=7 and f-1(x)=(7-1)/3=2 If the product of logax=y, going the other way involves ay=x, yet the inverse is, apparently, ax. I don't see why this is so... P.S. Happy voting!